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Old 04-30-2005, 02:33 PM
Draken Draken is offline
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Join Date: Nov 2004
Posts: 896
Default Re: Why was Hitler allowed to fail?

Not just that: let's not forget the fact that most people who allied themselves with Nazi Germany did so to fight the Bolshevik Communists and their agenda for "world peace", i.e. global Communism. These people had no way of knowing that the same bankers financed both sides and used the Nazis like they used the Bolsheviks to get the end result: a United States of Europe. Whether they got it through National Socialism or International Socialism really didn't matter.

Actually, if you think about it, the only way the masses would accept a United States of Europe was if NEITHER the Nazis NOR the Marxist-Leninists overtly imposed a united Europe. This way the masses are made to believe they didn't get neither a Nazi dictatorship nor a Commie one. They think a united Europe is their protection against dictators. They think they - "the people" - are in control and that they had (and have still) the power to withstand the onslaught from oppressive ideologies. They think "democracy" is strong enough to withstand the infiltration and subversion from both National Socialism and International Socialism.

Boy, have the Satanist/Socialist bankers got the masses fooled.

The problem is that the Marxist-Leninists have their own agenda and are SOOO much better at long-term infiltration and subversion strategies than the pragmatic, naive West. It's classic Sun Tzu: get your opponent to think they are in control and make them arrogant. If you're strong, feign weakness; if you're weak, feign strength. With that in mind; is not "The Fall of Communism" the most grand and wellplanned deception of all time?
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